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Monday, December 21, 2020

December 21, 2020

Daily Current Affairs : 20 December 2020

Daily Current Affairs : 20 December 2020


Q1.      Minorities Rights Day is observed every year across the nation on which date to protect the rights of minority communities?

1) December 10

2) December 15

3) December 17

4) December 18

5) December 20

Q2.      International Migrants Day aims to raise awareness about the challenges and difficulties of international migration. This day is observed on which of the following date?

1) December 10

2) December 15

3) December 17

4) December 18

5) December 20

Q3.      The Asian Games is a multi-disciplinary sports event held once in every four years. The most recent this games was held in Jakarta in 2018. Which city will host the 2030 edition of this games?

1) Aichi-Nagoya, China

2) Riyadh, Saudi Arab

3) Doha, Qatar

4) Hangzhou, China

5) Guangzhou, China

Q4.      The 12th Annual GRIHA (Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment) Summit with a theme of 'Rejuvenating Resilient Habitats' was held on the 15th  to ______ December, 2020.

1) 17th

2) 16th

3) 18th

4) 19th

5) 20th

Q5.      Prime Minister Narendra Modi has inaugurated  the world's largest renewable solar and wind energy park in Kutch district recently. Kutch is located in which state?

1) Kerala

2) Gujarat

3) Assam

4) Tamil Nadu

5) Uttar Pradesh

Q6.      Name the India’s communication satellite which was launched by PSLV-C50 recently from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota.

1) CMS-03

2) CMS-02

3) CMS-01

4) CMS-04

5) CMS-05

Q7.      Who has been awarded as the Best FIFA Men's Player for the year 2020?

1) Fabio Cannavaro

2) Robert Lewandowski

3) Cristiano Ronaldo

4) Lionel Messi

5) Luka Modric

Q8.      Which bank has launched its first metal credit card ‘Pioneer Heritage’ in partnership with MasterCard?

1) Yes Bank

2) SBI

3) ICICI Bank

4) IndusInd Bank

5) HDFC Bank

Q9.      E-Commerce Company Snapdeal has partnered with which organisation to integrate QR-based digital payments at doorstep?

1) RBI


3) Immediate Payment Service

4) Paytm

5) MobiKwik

Q10.    During a prime minister-level virtual bilateral summit, India- Bangladesh jointly inaugurated the railway link between which two railways stations?

1) Kolkata - Gandaria

2) Haldibari - Chilahati

3) Sealdah - Kamalapur

4) Belurmath - Tejgaon

5) Howrah - Fatulla




Q1. Ans:  December 18

Q2. Ans:  December 18

Q3. Ans:  Doha, Qatar

Q4. Ans:  16th

Q5. Ans:  Gujarat

Q6. Ans:  CMS-01

Q7. Ans:  Robert Lewandowski

Q8. Ans:   IndusInd Bank

Q9. Ans:   NPCI

Q10. Ans:   Haldibari - Chilahati

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Tuesday, September 1, 2020

September 01, 2020

IBPS_Clerk_2020_Notification | CRP CLERKS-X for Vacancies of 2021-22



CRP CLERKS-X for Vacancies of 2021-22

The online examination (Preliminary and Main) for the next Common Recruitment Process for selection of personnel for Clerical cadre Posts in the Participating Organisations is tentatively scheduled in December 2020 & January 2021.


 The tentative schedule of events is as follows:



Tentative Dates

On-line registration including Edit/Modification of Application by candidates

02.09.2020 to 23.09.2020

Payment of Application Fees/Intimation Charges (Online)

02.09.2020 to 23.09.2020

Download of call letters for Pre- Exam Training

17.11.2020 onwards

Conduct of Pre-Exam Training

23.11.2020 to 28.11.2020

Download of call letters for Online examination – Preliminary


Online Examination – Preliminary

05.12.2020, 12.12.2020 and 13.12.2020

Result of Online exam – Preliminary


Download of Call letter for Online exam – Main


Online Examination – Main


Provisional Allotment



 Click here for Official Notification


Candidates, intending to apply for CRP Clerks-X should ensure that they fulfil the minimum eligibility criteria specified by IBPS in this advertisement:


I. Nationality / Citizenship:

A candidate must be either -

(i) a Citizen of India or

(ii) a subject of Nepal or

(iii) a subject of Bhutan or

(iv) a Tibetan Refugee who came over to India before 1st January 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India or

(v) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania (formerly Tanganyika and Zanzibar), Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India, provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.

II. Age (As on 01.09.2020):

Minimum: 20 years Maximum: 28 years

i.e. A candidate must have been born not earlier than 02.09.1992 and not later than 01.09.2000 (both dates inclusive)

Relaxation of Upper age limit

Sr. No.


Age relaxation


Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe

5 years


Other Backward Classes (Non-Creamy Layer)

3 years


Persons With Disabilities

10 years


Ex-Servicemen / Disabled Ex-Servicemen

actual period of service rendered in the defence forces + 3 years (8 years for Disabled Ex-Servicemen belonging to SC/ST) subject to a maximum age limit of 50 years


Widows, divorced women and women legally separated from their husbands who have not remarried

9 years


Persons affected by 1984 riots

5 years


Regular employees of the Union Carbide Factory, Bhopal retrenched from service (Applicable to Madhya Pradesh state only)

5 years


NOTE: (i) The relaxation in upper age limit to SC/ST/OBC candidates is allowed on cumulative basis with only one of the remaining categories for which age relaxation is permitted as mentioned above in Point No. II (3) to II (7). 3


(ii) The maximum age limit specified is applicable to General Category candidates and Economically Weaker (EWS) Category Candidates.

(iii) Candidates seeking age relaxation will be required to submit necessary certificate(s) in original/ copies at the time of joining and at any subsequent stage of the recruitment process as required by IBPS/ Participating Organisation(s).

(iv) The following rules applicable to Ex-Servicemen re-employed under the Central government would apply to Ex-Servicemen candidates appearing for the examination:

a. Ex-Servicemen candidates who have already secured employment under the Central Government in Group ‘C’ & ‘D’ will be permitted the benefit of age relaxation as prescribed for Ex-Servicemen for securing another employment in a higher grade or cadre in Group ‘C’/ ‘D’ under the Central Government. However, such candidates will not be eligible for the benefit of reservation on second occasion for Ex-Servicemen in Central Government jobs.

b. An Ex-Servicemen who has once joined a Government job on civil side after availing of the benefits given to him/her as an Ex-Servicemen for his/her re-employment, his/her Ex-Servicemen status will be governed in terms of OM No. 36034/1/2014-Estt.(Res.) dated 14.08.2014 of Government of India, Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, as amended from time to time.

c. Candidates who are still in the Armed Forces and desirous of applying under Ex-Servicemen category whose date of completion of specific period of engagement (SPE) is completed one year from the last date for receipt of online application i.e. on or before 22.09.2021 are eligible to apply.


III. Educational Qualifications:

A Degree (Graduation) in any discipline from a University recognised by the Govt. Of India or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government. The candidate must possess valid Mark-sheet / Degree Certificate that he/ she is a graduate on the day he / she registers and indicate the percentage of marks obtained in Graduation while registering online.

Computer Literacy: Operating and working knowledge in computer systems is mandatory i.e. candidates should have Certificate/Diploma/Degree in computer operations/Language/ should have studied Computer / Information Technology as one of the subjects in the High School/College/Institute.

Proficiency in the Official Language of the State/UT (candidates should know how to read/ write and speak the Official Language of the State/UT) for which vacancies a candidate wishes to apply is preferable.

Ex-Servicemen who do not possess the above civil examination qualifications should be matriculate Ex-Servicemen who have obtained the Army Special Certificate of Education or corresponding certificate in the Navy or Air Force after having completed not less than 15 years of service in the Armed Forces of the Union as on 23.09.2020. Such certificates should be dated on or before 23.09.2020.

Note: (1) All the educational qualifications mentioned should be from a University/ Institution/ Board recognised by Govt. Of India/ approved by Govt. Regulatory Bodies and the final result should have been declared on or before 23.09.2020.

Proper document from Board / University for having declared the result on or before 23.09.2020 has to be submitted at the time of joining. The date of passing the eligibility examination will be the date appearing on the mark-sheet or provisional certificate issued by University/ Institute. In case the result of a particular examination is posted on the website of the University/ Institute and web based certificate is issued then proper document/certificate in original issued and signed by the appropriate authority of the University/ Institute indicating the date of passing properly mentioned thereon will be reckoned for verification and further process.

(2) Candidate should indicate the percentage obtained in Graduation calculated to the nearest two decimals in the online application. Where CGPA / OGPA is awarded, the same should be converted into percentage and indicated in online application. The candidate will have to produce a certificate issued by the appropriate authority inter alia stating that the norms of the University regarding conversion of grade into percentage and the percentage of marks scored by the candidate in terms of norms.

(3) Calculation of Percentage: The percentage marks shall be arrived at by dividing the total marks obtained by the candidate in all the subjects in all semester(s)/year(s) by aggregate maximum marks (in all the subjects irrespective of honours / optional / additional optional subject, if any) multiplied by 100. This will be applicable for those Universities also where Class / Grade is decided on basis of Honours marks only.

The fraction of percentage so arrived will be ignored i.e. 59.99% will be treated as less than 60% and 54.99% will be treated as less than 55%.


IV. Definition of Ex-Servicemen (EXSM)

i. Ex-Servicemen (EXSM): Only those candidates shall be treated as Ex-servicemen who fulfil the revised definition as laid down in Government of India, Ministry of Home Affairs, Department of Personnel & Administrative Reforms Notification No. 36034/5/85 Estt. (SCT) dated 27.10.1986 as amended from time to time.




ii. Disabled Ex-Servicemen (DISXS): Ex-servicemen who while serving in Armed Forces of the Union were disabled during war or in peace time but their disability being attributable to Military service, shall be treated as Disabled Ex-Servicemen.


iii. Dependents Of Servicemen Killed In Action (DXS): Servicemen killed in the following operations would be deemed to have been killed in action attributable to military service (a) war (b) war like operations or Border skirmishes either with Pakistan on cease fire line or any other country (c) fighting against armed hostiles in a counter insurgency environment viz: Nagaland, Mizoram, etc. (d) serving with peace keeping mission abroad (e) laying or clearance of mines including enemy mines as also mine sweeping operation between one month before and three months after conclusion of an operation (f) frost bite during actual operations or during the period specified by the Government (g) dealing with agitating para-military forces personnel (h) IPKF Personnel killed during the operations in Sri Lanka.

For the purpose of availing the concession of reservation for Dependents of Servicemen killed in action the member of the family would include his widow, son, daughter or his near relations who agree to support his family and an affidavit stating that the relaxation is availed by one dependent of Ex-Servicemen or not availed by any Dependent of Servicemen killed in action will have to be submitted at the time of joining.

The relaxation in upper age limit and in educational qualifications is not available to Dependents of Servicemen.

Note: The Territorial Army Personnel will be treated as ex-servicemen w.e.f. 15.11.1986.

Important: Government guidelines regarding definitions, relaxation etc. are subject to change from time to time. It is expressly clarified that any person who is employed by any branch of the armed services at the time of submission of his/ her application cannot be considered as Ex-Serviceman unless he/ she fulfils the prescribed conditions in the advertisement.

V. Reservation for Persons with Benchmark Disabilities

Under section 34 of “The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016”, persons with benchmark disabilities are eligible for Reservation. The post is identified suitable for the Persons with undernoted categories of disabilities as defined in the Schedule of RPWD Act 2016 and notified by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (Divyangjan) from time to time.

A. “OC” category:


A person's inability to execute distinctive activities associated with movement of self and objects resulting from affliction of musculoskeletal or nervous system or both, including Cerebral Palsy, Leprosy Cured, Dwarfism, Muscular Dystrophy and Acid Attack Victims. Orthopedically challenged persons are covered under locomotor disability with following bench mark:

a. OA - One arm affected (Right or Left)

b. OL - One leg affected (Right or Left)

c. OAL - One arm & One Leg affected

d. BL - Both legs affected but not arms

Persons with OA and OAL category should have normal bilateral hand functions.

a. "Leprosy cured person" means a person who has been cured of leprosy but is

suffering from:

i. Loss of sensation in hands or feet as well as loss of sensation and paresis in the eye and eye-lid but with no manifest deformity;

ii. Manifest deformity and paresis but having sufficient mobility in their hands and feet to enable them to engage in normal economic activity;

iii. extreme physical deformity as well as advanced age which prevents him/her from undertaking any gainful occupation, and the expression "leprosy cured" shall be construed accordingly;

b. “Cerebral palsy" means a Group of non-progressive neurological conditions affecting body movements and muscle coordination, caused by damage to one or more specific areas of the brain, usually occurring before, during or shortly after birth;

c. "Dwarfism" means a medical or genetic condition resulting in an adult height of 4 feet 10 inches (147 centimetres) or less;

d. "Muscular dystrophy" means a group of hereditary genetic muscle disease that weakens the muscles that move the human body and persons with multiple dystrophy have incorrect and missing information in their 5


genes, which prevents them from making the proteins they need for healthy muscles. It is characterised by progressive skeletal muscle weakness, defects in muscle proteins, and the death of muscle cells and tissue;

e. "Acid attack victims" means a person disfigured due to violent assaults by throwing of acid or similar corrosive substance.

B. Visual Impairment (“VI” Category): Only those Visually Impaired (VI) persons who suffer from any one of the following conditions, after best correction, are eligible to apply.

a. Blindness:

i. Total absence of sight; OR

ii. Visual acuity less than 3/60 or less than 10/200 (Snellen) in the better eye with best possible correction; OR

iii. Limitation of the field of vision subtending an angle of less than 10 degree. OR

b. Low Vision:

i. Visual acuity not exceeding 6/18 or less than 20/60 upto 3/60 or upto 10/200 (Snellen) in the better eye with best possible corrections; OR

ii. Limitation of the field of vision subtending an angle of less than 40 degree up to 10 degree.

C. Hearing Impaired (“HI” Category):

a. Deaf: means person having 70 DB hearing loss in speech frequencies in both ears.

b. Hard of Hearing: means person having 60 DB to 70 DB hearing loss in speech frequencies in both ears.

D. “ID” Category: Only those persons, who suffer from any one of the following types of disabilities, are eligible to apply under this category:

1. Intellectual disability.

a. Autism Spectrum disorder (ASD) means a neuro-developmental condition typically appearing in the first three years of life that significantly affects a person's ability to communicate, understand relationships and relate to others, and is frequently associated with unusual or stereotypical rituals or behaviours.

b. “Specific Learning Disability” (SLD) means a heterogeneous group of conditions wherein there is a deficit in processing language, spoken or written, that may manifest itself as a difficulty to comprehend, speak, read, write, spell, or to do mathematical calculations and includes such conditions as perceptual disabilities, dyslexia, dysgraphia, dyscalculia, dyspraxia and developmental aphasia.

c. “Mental Illness” (MI) means a substantial disorder of thinking, mood, perception, orientation or memory that grossly impairs judgment, behaviour, capacity to recognise reality or ability to meet the ordinary demands of life, but does not include retardation which is a condition of arrested or incomplete development of mind of a person, specially characterised by sub normality of intelligence

2. “Multiple Disabilities” means multiple disabilities amongst clause “A”; “B”; “C”;”D (1)”.

Note: Only those persons with benchmark disabilities would be eligible for reservation. “Benchmark disability” means a person with not less than 40% of a specified disability where specified disability has not been defined in measurable terms and includes the persons with disability, where disability has been defined in a measurable terms, as certified by the certifying authority.

A person who wants to avail benefit of reservation will have to submit a disability certificate issued by a Competent Authority as per Government of India guidelines. Such certificate will be subject to verification/ re-verification as may be decided by the competent authority.

The allocation of reserved vacancies for the persons with benchmark disabilities will be as prescribed in the “The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016” and as per vacancies reported to IBPS by Participating Organisations.

(i) Guidelines for Persons With Benchmark Disabilities using a Scribe


The visually impaired candidates and candidates whose writing speed is adversely affected permanently for any reason can use their own scribe at their cost during the online examination (Preliminary and Main). In all such cases where a scribe is used, the following rules will apply: 6



The candidate will have to arrange his / her own scribe at his/her own cost.

 The scribe may be from any academic stream.

 Both the candidate as well as scribe will have to give a suitable undertaking confirming that the scribe fulfils all the stipulated eligibility criteria for a scribe mentioned above. Further in case it later transpires that he/she did not fulfil any laid down eligibility criteria or suppressed material facts the candidature of the applicant will stand cancelled, irrespective of the result of the CRP.

 Those candidates who use a scribe shall be eligible for compensatory time of 20 minutes or otherwise advised for every hour of the examination.

The scribe arranged by the candidate should not be a candidate for the online examination under (CRP-Clerks-X). If violation of the above is detected at any stage of the process, candidature for CRP of both the candidate and the scribe will be cancelled. Candidates eligible for and who wish to use the services of a scribe in the examination should invariably carefully indicate the same in the online application form. Any subsequent request may not be favourably entertained.

Only candidates registered for compensatory time will be allowed such concessions since compensatory time given to candidates shall be system based, it shall not be possible for the test conducting agency to allow such time if he / she is not registered for the same. Candidates not registered for compensatory time shall not be allowed such concessions.


(ii) Guidelines for candidates with locomotor disability and cerebral palsy


A Compensatory time of twenty minutes per hour or otherwise advised shall be permitted for the candidates with locomotor disability and cerebral palsy where dominant (writing) extremity is affected to the extent of slowing the performance of function (minimum of 40% impairment).

(iii) Guidelines for Visually Impaired candidates

 Visually Impaired candidates (who suffer from not less than 40% of disability) may opt to view the contents of the test in magnified font and all such candidates will be eligible for compensatory time of 20 minutes for every hour or otherwise advised of examination.

 The facility of viewing the contents of the test in magnifying font will not be available to Visually Impaired candidates who use the services of a Scribe for the examination.

(iv) Guidelines for Candidates with Intellectual Disability (ID)


A Compensatory time of twenty minutes per hour of examination, either availing the services of a scribe or not, shall be permitted to the candidates with more than 40% Intellectual Disability (autism, intellectual disability, specific learning disability and mental illness).

Note: These guidelines are subject to change in terms of GOI guidelines/ clarifications, if any, from time to time.

C. EWS (Economically Weaker Section)


1. Persons who are not covered under the existing scheme of reservations to the Scheduled Castes, the Schedule Tribes and the Other Backward Classes and whose family has gross annual income below Rs.8.00 lakh (Rupees eight lakh only) are to be identified as EWSs for benefit of reservation. The income shall include income from all sources i.e. salary, agriculture, business, profession etc. and it will be income for the financial year prior to the year of application. Also persons whose family owns or possesses any of the following assets shall be excluded from being identified as EWSs, irrespective of the family income:

i.) 5 acres of Agricultural Land and above;

ii.) Residential flat of 1000 sq. ft. and above;

iii.) Residential plot of 100 sq. yards and above in notified municipalities;

iv.) Residential plot of 200 sq. yards and above in areas other than the notified municipalities.


2. The property held by a "Family" in different locations or different places / cities would be clubbed while applying the land or property holding test to determine EWS status.

3. The benefit of reservation under EWS can be availed upon production of an Income and Asset Certificate issued by a Competent Authority. The Income and Asset Certificate issued by any one of the Authorities as notified by the Government of India in the prescribed format shall only be accepted as proof of candidate's claim as belonging to EWS. The candidates shortlisted for document verification/interview shall be required to bring the requisite certificate as specified by the Government of India at the time of appearing for the process of document verification/interview.

4. The term "Family" for this purpose will include the person who seeks benefit of reservation, his/her parents and siblings below the age of 18 years as also his/her spouse and children below the age of 18 years.

5. The instructions issued by the Government of India in this regard from time to time shall be adhered to.


Disclaimer: EWS Vacancies are tentative and subject to further directives of Government of India and outcome of any litigation. 7


Note: These guidelines are subject to change in terms of GOI guidelines/ clarifications, if any, from time to time.


Note- Due to COVID-19 pandemic, for the safety of the candidates, PET during this period may not be held.

Pre-Examination Training may be arranged by the Nodal Banks/ Participating Organisations to a limited number of candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste/ Scheduled Tribes/ Minority Communities/ Ex-Servicemen/ Persons With Benchmark Disabilities at certain centres viz. Agartala, Agra, Ahmedabad, Amritsar, Aurangabad (Maharashtra), Balasore, Behrampur (Ganjam), Bengaluru, Bhopal, Bhubaneshwar, Chandigarh, Chennai, Coimbatore, Dehradun, Dhanbad, Gorakhpur, Gulbarga, Guwahati, Hubli, Hyderabad, Indore, Jabalpur, Jaipur, Jammu, Jodhpur, Karnal, Kavaratti, Kochi, Kolkata, Lucknow, Ludhiana, Madurai, Mangalore, Mumbai, Muzaffarpur, Mysore, Nagpur, New Delhi, Panaji (Goa), Patiala, Patna, Port Blair, Prayagraj (Allahabad), Pune, Raipur, Rajkot, Ranchi, Sambalpur, Shimla, Shillong, Siliguri, Thiruchirapalli, Thiruvananthapuram, Tirupati, Vadodara, Varanasi, Vijaywada and Vishakhapatnam.

All eligible candidates who opt for and wish to avail of Pre-Examination Training should fill in the relevant column in the ON-LINE APPLICATION. While training will be imparted free of cost, all other expenses regarding travelling, boarding, lodging etc. will have to be borne by the candidate for attending the pre-examination training programme at the designated Centres. Depending on the response and administrative feasibility the right to cancel any of the Pre- Examination Training Centres and/ or add some other Centres and/or make alternate arrangements is reserved.

By merely attending the Pre-Examination Training no candidate acquires any right to be selected in any of the Participating Organisations mentioned.


I. The structure of the Examinations which will be conducted online are as follows:


a. Preliminary Examination

Sr. No.

Name of Tests

No. of Questions

Maximum Marks

Time allotted for each test (Separately timed)


English Language



20 minutes


Numerical Ability



20 minutes


Reasoning Ability



20 minutes




60 minutes


Candidates have to qualify in each of the three tests by securing cut-off marks to be decided by IBPS. Adequate number of candidates in each category as decided by IBPS depending upon requirements will be shortlisted for Online Main examination.


b. Main Examination


Sr. No.

Name of Tests

No. of Questions

Maximum Marks

Time allotted for each test (Separately timed)



General/ Financial Awareness



35 minutes


General English



35 minutes


Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude



45 minutes


Quantitative Aptitude



45 minutes




160 minutes